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NEW QUESTION # 20
An administrator has been asked to deploy a database server that provides the highest performance with fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels will fulfill this request?
- A. RAID1
- B. RAID 10
- C. RAIDO
- D. RAID 5
- E. RAID 6
Answer: B
Explanation:
RAID 10 is the best option to deploy a database server that provides the highest performance with fault tolerance. RAID 10 is a type of RAID level that combines RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping) to create an array of mirrored stripes. RAID 10 offers high performance by distributing data across multiple disks in parallel (striping), which improves read/write speed and I/O operations. RAID 10 also offers fault tolerance by duplicating data across two or more disks in each stripe (mirroring), which provides redundancy and data protection in case of disk failure. RAID 10 requires at least four disks to implement and has a high storage overhead, as half of the disk space is used for mirroring. Reference: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives]
NEW QUESTION # 21
A large number of connections to port 80 is discovered while reviewing the log files on a server. The server is not functioning as a web server. Which of the following represent the BEST immediate actions to prevent unauthorized server access? (Choose two.)
- A. Run a checksum tool against all the files on the server
- B. Initialize a port scan on the server to identify open ports
- C. Install a NIDS on the server to prevent network intrusions
- D. Stop all unneeded services and block the ports on the firewall
- E. Audit all group privileges and permissions
- F. Enable port forwarding on port 80
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Explanation
The best immediate actions to prevent unauthorized server access are to stop all unneeded services and block the ports on the firewall. Stopping unneeded services reduces the attack surface of the server by eliminating potential entry points for attackers. For example, if the server is not functioning as a web server, there is no need to run a web service on port 80. Blocking ports on the firewall prevents unauthorized network traffic from reaching the server. For example, if port 80 is not needed for any legitimate purpose, it can be blocked on the firewall to deny any connection attempts on that port.
NEW QUESTION # 22
A server administrator is experiencing difficulty configuring MySQL on a Linux server. The administrator issues the getenforce command and receives the following output:
># Enforcing
Which of the following commands should the administrator issue to configure MySQL successfully?
- A. setenforce disabled
- B. setenforce 1
- C. setenforce 0
- D. setenforce permissive
Answer: C
Explanation:
The command that the administrator should issue to configure MySQL successfully is setenforce 0. This command sets the SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) mode to permissive, which means that SELinux will not enforce its security policies and will only log any violations. SELinux is a feature that provides mandatory access control (MAC) for Linux systems, which can enhance the security and prevent unauthorized access or modification of files and processes. However, SELinux can also interfere with some applications or services that require specific permissions or ports that are not allowed by SELinux by default. In this case, MySQL may not be able to run properly due to SELinux restrictions. To resolve this issue, the administrator can either disable SELinux temporarily by using setenforce 0, or permanently by editing the /etc/selinux/config file and setting SELINUX=disabled. Alternatively, the administrator can configure SELinux to allow MySQL to run by using commands such as semanage or setsebool.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of me following BEST describes a disaster recovery site with a target storage array that receives replication traffic and servers that are only powered on In the event of a disaster?
- A. Cold
- B. Cloud
- C. Hot
- D. Warm
Answer: D
Explanation:
A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has a target storage array that receives replication traffic and servers that are only powered on in the event of a disaster. A warm site is a compromise between a hot site and a cold site. A warm site has some equipment and data ready, but requires some configuration and restoration before resuming operations. A warm site is usually located in a different geographic area than the primary site and has redundant power, cooling, network, and security systems. A warm site is suitable for organizations that can tolerate some downtime and data loss in case of a disaster. A cloud site is a type of disaster recovery site that uses cloud-based resources and platforms to store backups and restore data and applications after a disaster. A cold site is a type of disaster recovery site that has only basic infrastructure and space available, but requires significant setup and installation before resuming operations. A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has all the equipment and data ready to resume operations as soon as possible after a disaster.
References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11172/hot-site
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11173/warm-site
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11174/cold-site
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/29836/cloud-recovery
NEW QUESTION # 24
A server technician arrives at a data center to troubleshoot a physical server that is not responding to remote management software. The technician discovers the servers in the data center are not connected to a KVM switch, and their out-of-band management cards have not been configured. Which of the following should the technician do to access the server for troubleshooting purposes?
- A. Connect a console cable to the server NIC.
- B. Connect the diagnostic card to the PCle connector.
- C. Connect to the server from a crash cart.
- D. Connect the virtual administration console.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A crash cart is a mobile device that consists of a monitor, a keyboard, a mouse, and a network connection. It can be used to access a physical server that is not responding to remote management software or does not have out-of-band management cards configured. The technician can connect the crash cart to the server using a VGA or HDMI cable and troubleshoot the server locally. Verified References: [Crash cart], [Out-of-band management]
NEW QUESTION # 25
A server technician is installing a Windows server OS on a physical server. The specifications for the installation call for a 4TB data volume. To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify the:
- A. volume is formatted as GPT
- B. volume is spanned across multiple physical disk drives
- C. hardware is UEFI compliant
- D. volume is formatted as MBR
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify that the volume is formatted as GPT.
GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that defines how data is organized on a hard disk drive (HDD) or a solid state drive (SSD). GPT uses globally unique identifiers (GUIDs) to identify partitions and supports up to 128 primary partitions per disk. GPT also supports disks larger than 2 TB and has a backup copy of the partition table at the end of the disk for data recovery. GPT is required for installing Windows on UEFI-based PCs, which offer faster boot time and better security than legacy BIOS-based PCs.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A technician needs to restore data from a backup. The technician has these files in the backup inventory:
Which of the following backup types is being used if the file 01062020.bak requires another file to restore data?
- A. Snapshot
- B. Differential
- C. Incremental
- D. Full
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An incremental backup only backs up files that have changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. Therefore, an incremental backup file may require another file to restore data, depending on the sequence of backups. A full backup backs up all files and does not require any other file to restore data.
A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of data that does not depend on other files. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup and does not require any other file to restore data.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following actions should the server administrator perform on the server?
- A. Close all ports and rerun the scan.
- B. Close ports 80 and 443 and rerun the scan.
- C. Close ports 69 and 1010 and rerun the scan.
- D. Close port 3389 and rerun the scan.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The server administrator should close port 3389 and rerun the scan. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which allows remote access and control of a server. RDP is vulnerable to brute-force attacks, credential theft, and malware infection. Closing port 3389 can prevent unauthorized access and improve the security of the server. The other ports are not as risky as port 3389 and can be left open for legitimate purposes. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.4: Given a scenario, implement proper environmental controls and techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 28
After installing a new file server, a technician notices the read times for accessing the same file are slower than the read times for other file servers.
Which of the following is the first step the technician should take?
- A. Check if the cache is turned on.
- B. Install faster hard drives.
- C. Add more memory.
- D. Enable link aggregation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The cache is a temporary storage area that holds frequently accessed data or instructions for faster retrieval. The cache can improve the read times for accessing files by reducing the need to access the hard drive, which is slower than the cache memory1. Therefore, the first step the technician should take is to check if the cache is turned on for the new file server. If the cache is turned off, the technician should enable it and see if the read times improve. The other options are incorrect because they are not the first steps to take. Adding more memory, installing faster hard drives, or enabling link aggregation are possible ways to improve the performance of the file server, but they are more costly and time-consuming than checking the cache. Moreover, they may not address the root cause of the problem if the cache is turned off.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting theory should be performed after a solution has been implemented? (Choose two.)
- A. Scope the issue
- B. Develop a plan of action
- C. Perform a root cause analysis
- D. Document the findings
- E. Escalate the issue
- F. Notify the users
Answer: D,F
NEW QUESTION # 30
A server administrator is configuring a new server that will hold large amounts of information. The server will need to be accessed by multiple users at the same time. Which of the following server roles will the administrator MOST likely need to install?
- A. Application
- B. Print
- C. Database
- D. Messaging
Answer: C
Explanation:
Few people are expected to use the database at the same time and users don't need to customize the design of the database.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following encryption methodologies would MOST likely be used to ensure encrypted data cannot be retrieved if a device is stolen?
- A. Public key encryption
- B. End-to-end encryption
- C. Encryption in transit
- D. Encryption at rest
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 32
A backup application is copying only changed files each time it runs. During a restore, however, only a single file is used. Which of the following backup methods does this describe?
- A. Full incremental
- B. Open file
- C. Full differential
- D. Synthetic full
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following often-overlooked parts of the asset life cycle can cause the greatest number of issues in relation to Pll exposure?
- A. Procurement
- B. Disposal
- C. Usage
- D. End-of-life
Answer: B
Explanation:
Disposal is the part of the asset life cycle that can cause the greatest number of issues in relation to PII exposure. PII stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc. PII exposure is the unauthorized access or disclosure of PII, which can result in identity theft, fraud, or other harms to the individuals whose data is compromised. Disposal is the process of getting rid of an asset that is no longer needed or useful, such as a server, a hard drive, or a mobile device. If the disposal is not done properly, the PII stored on the asset may still be accessible or recoverable by unauthorized parties, such as hackers, thieves, or competitors. Therefore, it is important to follow best practices for secure disposal of assets that contain PII, such as wiping, encrypting, shredding, or physically destroying the data storage media
NEW QUESTION # 34
A technician is configuring a new server with four disks for the development team. The requirements are disk redundancy and maximum usable disk capacity. Which of the following RAID levels should be used for this server?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scenario: Four disks, requiring redundancy and maximum usable capacity.
RAID Level: RAID 10 (Option D) is the best choice:
RAID 10 combines mirroring (redundancy) and striping (performance).
RAID 0 lacks redundancy, RAID 1 provides less capacity, and RAID 5 requires more
NEW QUESTION # 35
A company needs to increase the security controls on its servers. An administrator is implementing MFA on all servers using cost effective techniques. Which of the following should the administrator use to satisfy the MFA requirement?
- A. Smart carts
- B. Push notifications
- C. Physical tokens
- D. Biometrics
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Push notifications are messages that are sent from an application or a service to a user's device without requiring the user to open or request them. They can be used as a cost-effective technique for implementing MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) on servers by sending verification codes or approval requests to the user's smartphone or tablet when they try to log in to the server. Verified References: [Push notifications], [MFA]
NEW QUESTION # 36
A staff member who a monitoring a data center reports one rack is experiencing higher temperatures than the racks next to it, despite the hardware in each rack being the same. Which of the following actions would MOST likely remediate the heal issue?
- A. installing an additional POU and spreading out the power cables
- B. Installing blanking panels in all the empty rack spaces
- C. Installing servers on the shelves instead of sliding rails
- D. installing front bezels on all the server's m the rack
Answer: B
Explanation:
Blanking panels are metal or plastic plates that are installed in the empty spaces of a rack to prevent hot air from recirculating back to the front of the rack. This can improve the airflow and cooling efficiency of the rack and reduce the heat generated by the servers. Verified Reference: [Blanking panel], [Rack cooling]
NEW QUESTION # 37
An administrator needs three distinct security zones in a company's network. Which of the following is the administrator MOST likely to implement?
- A. A Layer 3 firewall
- B. Host-based firewalls
- C. A circuit-based firewall
- D. A web application firewall
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following commands should a systems administrator use to create a batch script to map multiple shares'?
- A. tracert
- B. nbtstat
- C. netstst
- D. netuse
Answer: D
Explanation:
net use [devicename | *] [\\computername\sharename[\u0003volume] [password | *]] [/user:[domainname\]username] [/user:[dotted domain name\]username] [/user:[[username@dotted domain name] [/savecred] [/smartcard] [{/delete | /persistent:{yes | no}}] where:
devicename = the drive letter or printer port to assign to the shared resource computername = the name of the computer that provides access to the shared resource sharename = the name of the shared resource password = the password needed to access the shared resource /user = specifies a different username to make the connection /savecred = stores the provided credentials for future use /smartcard = uses a smart card for authentication /delete = cancels a network connection and removes the connection from the list of persistent connections /persistent = controls whether the connection is restored at logon To create a batch script to map multiple shares, you can use the net use command with different drive letters and share names, for example:
net use W: \\computer1\share1 net use X: \\computer2\share2 net use Y: \\computer3\share3 You can also add other options, such as passwords, usernames, or persistence, as needed. To save the batch script, you can use Notepad or any text editor and save the file with a .bat extension12.
References: 1 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/net-use 2 https://www.watchingthenet.com/create-a-batch-file-to-map-drives-folders.html
NEW QUESTION # 39
An administrator received an alert that a backup job has been unsuccessful in the previous three attempts. The administrator discovers the issue occurred while backing up a user's data on a network share. Which of the following actions would be best to allow the job to complete successfully?
- A. Excluding the user's data from the backup
- B. Enabling open file backups in the backup job
- C. Changing the backup job to exclude certain file types
- D. Moving the user's data off the network share
Answer: B
Explanation:
Enabling open file backups allows the backup software to copy files that are currently open or in use by applications. This ensures that even if a file is actively being modified during the backup process, it will still be included in the backup.
Advantages:
Ensures consistency of backed-up data, especially for files that are frequently accessed or modified.
Prevents data loss due to files being skipped during backup.
Reference:
CompTIA Server+ Guide, Chapter 6: Storage, Section 6.3.2 (Backup Types) Microsoft Docs: Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)
NEW QUESTION # 40
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