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NEW QUESTION # 96
Given the output below:
#nmap 7.70 scan initiated Tues, Feb 8 12:34:56 2022 as: nmap -v -Pn -p 80,8000,443 --script http-* -oA server.out 192.168.220.42 Which of the following is being performed?
- A. Local file inclusion attack
- B. Web server enumeration
- C. Cross-site scripting
- D. Log4] check
Answer: B
Explanation:
Web server enumeration is the process of identifying information about a web server, such as its software version, operating system, configuration, services, and vulnerabilities. This can be done using tools like Nmap, which can scan ports and run scripts to gather information. In this question, the Nmap command is using the -p option to scan ports 80, 8000, and 443, which are commonly used for web services. It is also using the --script option to run scripts that start with http-*, which are related to web server enumeration. The output file name server.out also suggests that the purpose of the scan is to enumerate web servers. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 8; https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
NEW QUESTION # 97
Security analysts review logs on multiple servers on a daily basis. Which of the following implementations will give the best central visibility into the events occurring throughout the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually?
- A. Deploy a database to aggregate the logging.
- B. Configure the servers to forward logs to a SIEM-
- C. Automate the emailing of logs to the analysts.
- D. Share the log directory on each server to allow local access,
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The best implementation to give the best central visibility into the events occurring throughout the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually is B. Configure the servers to forward logs to a SIEM.
A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that helps organizations detect, analyze, and respond to security threats before they disrupt business1. SIEM tools collect, aggregate, and correlate log data from various sources across an organization's network, such as applications, devices, servers, and users. SIEM tools also provide real-time alerts, dashboards, reports, and incident response capabilities to help security teams identify and mitigate cyberattacks2345.
By configuring the servers to forward logs to a SIEM, the security analysts can have a central view of potential threats and monitor security incidents across the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually. This can save time, improve efficiency, and enhance security posture2345.
Deploying a database to aggregate the logging (A) may not provide the same level of analysis, correlation, and alerting as a SIEM tool. Sharing the log directory on each server to allow local access may not be scalable or secure for a large number of servers. Automating the emailing of logs to the analysts (D) may not be timely or effective for real-time threat detection and response. Therefore, B is the best option among the choices given.
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following best describes the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m.?
- A. LOI
- B. KPI
- C. MOU
- D. SLA
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
SLA (Service Level Agreement) is the best term to describe the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m., as it reflects the agreement between a service provider and a customer that specifies the services, quality, availability, and responsibilities that are agreed upon. An SLA is a common type of document that is used in various industries and contexts, such as IT, telecom, cloud computing, or outsourcing. An SLA typically includes metrics and indicators to measure the performance and quality of the service, such as uptime, response time, or resolution time. An SLA also defines the consequences or remedies for any breaches or failures of the service, such as penalties, refunds, or credits. An SLA can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, improve productivity, and strengthen relationships. The other terms are not as accurate as SLA, as they describe different types of documents or concepts. LOI (Letter of Intent) is a document that outlines the main terms and conditions of a proposed agreement between two or more parties, before a formal contract is signed. An LOI is usually non-binding and expresses the intention or interest of the parties to enter into a future agreement. An LOI can help to clarify the key points of a deal, facilitate negotiations, or demonstrate commitment. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that describes a mutual agreement or cooperation between two or more parties, without creating any legal obligations or commitments. An MOU is usually more formal than an LOI, but less formal than a contract. An MOU can help to establish a common ground, define roles and responsibilities, or outline expectations and goals. KPI (Key Performance Indicator) is a concept that refers to a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization or individual is achieving its key objectives or goals. A KPI is usually quantifiable and specific, such as revenue growth, customer satisfaction, or employee retention. A KPI can help to track progress, evaluate performance, or identify areas for improvement.
NEW QUESTION # 99
A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the team patches the most urgent vulnerabilities:
Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system?
- A. PBleach:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: No
Smear: No
Channing: Yes - B. InLoud:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: Yes
Channing: No - C. ENameless:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No - D. TSpirit:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: Yes
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No
Answer: D
Explanation:
The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:
TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No
This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following would a security analyst most likely use to compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization?
- A. STIXTAXII
- B. MITRE ATTACK
- C. OWASP
- D. Cyber Kill Cham
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
MITRE ATT&CK is a framework and knowledge base that describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by various adversaries in cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK can help security analysts compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization, as well as identify patterns, gaps, or trends in adversary behavior. MITRE ATT&CK can also help security analysts improve threat detection, analysis, and response capabilities, as well as share threat intelligence with other organizations or communities
NEW QUESTION # 101
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report for a server environment with the following entries:
Which of the following systems should be prioritized for patching first?
- A. 54.74.110.228
- B. 54.73.225.17
- C. 54.74.110.26
- D. 10.101.27.98
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The system that should be prioritized for patching first is 54.74.110.228, as it has the highest number and severity of vulnerabilities among the four systems listed in the vulnerability report. According to the report, this system has 12 vulnerabilities, with 8 critical, 3 high, and 1 medium severity ratings. The critical vulnerabilities include CVE-2019-0708 (BlueKeep), CVE-2019-1182 (DejaBlue), CVE-2017-0144 (EternalBlue), and CVE-2017-0145 (EternalRomance), which are all remote code execution vulnerabilities that can allow an attacker to compromise the system without any user interaction or authentication. These vulnerabilities pose a high risk to the system and should be patched as soon as possible.
NEW QUESTION # 102
An organization would like to ensure its cloud infrastructure has a hardened configuration. A requirement is to create a server image that can be deployed with a secure template. Which of the following is the best resource to ensure secure configuration?
- A. ISO 27001
- B. CIS Benchmarks
- C. OWASP Top Ten
- D. PCI DSS
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best resource to ensure secure configuration of cloud infrastructure is A. CIS Benchmarks. CIS Benchmarks are a set of prescriptive configuration recommendations for various technologies, including cloud providers, operating systems, network devices, and server software. They are developed by a global community of cybersecurity experts and help organizations protect their systems against threats more confidently1 PCI DSS, OWASP Top Ten, and ISO 27001 are also important standards for information security, but they are not focused on providing specific guidance for hardening cloud infrastructure. PCI DSS is a compliance scheme for payment card transactions, OWASP Top Ten is a list of common web application security risks, and ISO 27001 is a framework for establishing and maintaining an information security management system. These standards may have some relevance for cloud security, but they are not as comprehensive and detailed as CIS Benchmarks
NEW QUESTION # 103
An incident response team receives an alert to start an investigation of an internet outage. The outage is preventing all users in multiple locations from accessing external SaaS resources. The team determines the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack. Which of the following logs should the team review first?
- A. CDN
- B. Vulnerability scanner
- C. DNS
- D. Web server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to overwhelm a target's network or server with a large volume of traffic from multiple sources. A common technique for launching a DDoS attack is to compromise DNS servers, which are responsible for resolving domain names into IP addresses. By flooding DNS servers with malicious requests, attackers can disrupt the normal functioning of the internet and prevent users from accessing external SaaS resources. Official References:
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/
NEW QUESTION # 104
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company. Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
There must be one primary server or service per device.
Only default port should be used
Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet
Instructions :
Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
ip address of each device
The primary server or service each device
The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines
Answer:
Explanation:
see the answer below in explanation
Explanation:
Answer below images
NEW QUESTION # 105
During an incident, a security analyst discovers a large amount of Pll has been emailed externally from an employee to a public email address. The analyst finds that the external email is the employee's
personal email. Which of the following should the analyst recommend be done first?
- A. Configure a deny rule on the firewall.
- B. Enable filtering on the web proxy.
- C. Place a legal hold on the employee's mailbox.
- D. Disable the public email access with CASB.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Placing a legal hold on the employee's mailbox is the best action to perform first, as it preserves all mailbox content, including deleted items and original versions of modified items, for potential legal or forensic purposes. A legal hold is a feature that allows an administrator to retain mailbox data for a user indefinitely or for a specified period, regardless of the user's actions or retention policies. A legal hold can be applied to a mailbox using Litigation Hold or In-Place Hold in Exchange Server or Exchange Online. A legal hold can help to ensure that evidence of data exfiltration or other malicious activities is not lost or tampered with, and that the organization can comply with any legal or regulatory obligations. The other actions are not as urgent or effective as placing a legal hold on the employee's mailbox, as they do not address the immediate threat of data loss or compromise. Enabling filtering on the web proxy may help to prevent some types of data exfiltration or malicious traffic, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally. Disabling the public email access with CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) may help to block or monitor the use of public email services by employees, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally. Configuring a deny rule on the firewall may help to block or monitor the network traffic from the employee's laptop, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following software assessment methods world peak times?
- A. Security regression testing
- B. Dynamic analysis testing
- C. User acceptance testing
- D. Stress testing
- E. Static analysis testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Stress testing is a software assessment method that tests how an application performs under peak times or extreme workloads. Stress testing can help to identify any performance issues, bottlenecks, errors or crashes that may occur when an application faces high demand or concurrent users. Stress testing can also help to determine the maximum capacity and scalability of an application .
NEW QUESTION # 107
A security analyst receives an alert for suspicious activity on a company laptop An excerpt of the log is shown below:
Which of the following has most likely occurred?
- A. A credential-stealing website was visited.
- B. A web browser vulnerability was exploited.
- C. A phishing link in an email was clicked
- D. An Office document with a malicious macro was opened.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An Office document with a malicious macro was opened is the most likely explanation for the suspicious activity on the company laptop, as it reflects the common technique of using macros to execute PowerShell commands that download and run malware. A macro is a piece of code that can automate tasks or perform actions in an Office document, such as a Word file or an Excel spreadsheet. Macros can be useful and legitimate, but they can also be abused by threat actors to deliver malware or perform malicious actions on the system. A malicious macro can be embedded in an Office document that is sent as an attachment in a phishing email or hosted on a compromised website. When the user opens the document, they may be prompted to enable macros or content, which will trigger the execution of the malicious code. The malicious macro can then use PowerShell, which is a scripting language and command-line shell that is built into Windows, to perform various tasks, such as downloading and running malware from a remote URL, bypassing security controls, or establishing persistence on the system. The log excerpt shows that PowerShell was used to download a string from a URL using the WebClient.DownloadString method, which is a common way to fetch and execute malicious code from the internet. The log also shows that PowerShell was used to invoke an expression (iex) that contains obfuscated code, which is another common way to evade detection and analysis. The other options are not as likely as an Office document with a malicious macro was opened, as they do not match the evidence in the log excerpt. A credential-stealing website was visited is possible, but it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL. A phishing link in an email was clicked is also possible, but it does not explain what happened after the link was clicked or how PowerShell was involved. A web browser vulnerability was exploited is unlikely, as it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL.
NEW QUESTION # 108
The security analyst received the monthly vulnerability report. The following findings were included in the report
* Five of the systems only required a reboot to finalize the patch application.
* Two of the servers are running outdated operating systems and cannot be patched The analyst determines that the only way to ensure these servers cannot be compromised is to isolate them. Which of the following approaches will best minimize the risk of the outdated servers being compromised?
- A. Compensating controls
- B. Passive discovery
- C. Due diligence
- D. Maintenance windows
Answer: A
Explanation:
Compensating controls are the best approach to minimize the risk of the outdated servers being compromised, as they can provide an alternative or additional layer of security when the primary control is not feasible or effective. Compensating controls are security measures that are implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or an attack when the primary control is not feasible or effective. For example, if the servers are running outdated operating systems and cannot be patched, a compensating control could be to isolate them from the rest of the network, or to implement a firewall or an intrusion prevention system to monitor and block any malicious traffic to or from the servers. Compensating controls can help reduce the likelihood or impact of an exploit, but they do not eliminate the risk completely. Therefore, the security analyst should also consider upgrading or replacing the outdated servers as soon as possible.
NEW QUESTION # 109
The security operations team is required to consolidate several threat intelligence feeds due to redundant tools and portals. Which of the following will best achieve the goal and maximize results?
- A. Single sign-on
- B. Single pane of glass
- C. Deduplication
- D. Data enrichment
Answer: C
Explanation:
Deduplication is a process that involves removing any duplicate or redundant data or information from a data set or source. Deduplication can help consolidate several threat intelligence feeds by eliminating any overlapping or repeated indicators of compromise (IoCs), alerts, reports, or recommendations. Deduplication can also help reduce the volume and complexity of threat intelligence data, as well as improve its quality, accuracy, or relevance.
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following describes the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis?
- A. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented.
- B. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process.
- C. The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event
- D. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event is the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis, as it reflects the main goal and benefit of this problem-solving approach. A root cause analysis (RCA) is a process of discovering the root causes of problems in order to identify appropriate solutions. A root cause is the core issue or factor that sets in motion the entire cause-and-effect chain that leads to the problem. A root cause analysis assumes that it is more effective to systematically prevent and solve underlying issues rather than just treating symptoms or putting out fires. A root cause analysis can be performed using various methods, tools, and techniques that help to uncover the causes of problems, such as events and causal factor analysis, change analysis, barrier analysis, or fishbone diagrams. A root cause analysis can help to improve quality, performance, safety, or efficiency by finding and eliminating the sources of problems. The other options are not as accurate as the root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event, as they do not capture the essence or value of conducting a root cause analysis. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented is a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting timelines can help to establish the sequence of events and actions that led to the problem, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting is also a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting and reporting incidents can help to communicate and share information about problems and solutions, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process is another possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Developing recommendations can help to implement solutions and prevent future problems, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes.
NEW QUESTION # 111
The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?
- A. A mean time to detect of 45 days
- B. Third-party application testing
- C. A mean time to remediate of 30 days
- D. A mean time to respond of 15 days
Answer: C
Explanation:
A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited
NEW QUESTION # 112
A security analyst reviews the latest vulnerability scans and observes there are vulnerabilities with similar CVSSv3 scores but different base score metrics. Which of the following attack vectors should the analyst remediate first?
- A. CVSS 3.0/AV:A/AC .L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
- B. CVSS 3.0/AVP/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S U/C:H/I:H/A:H
- C. CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S;U/C:H/I:H/A:H
- D. CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H is the attack vector that the analyst should remediate first, as it has the highest CVSSv3 score of 8.1. CVSSv3 (Common Vulnerability Scoring System version 3) is a standard framework for rating the severity of vulnerabilities, based on various metrics that reflect the characteristics and impact of the vulnerability. The CVSSv3 score is calculated from three groups of metrics:
Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metrics are mandatory and reflect the intrinsic qualities of the vulnerability, such as how it can be exploited, what privileges are required, and what impact it has on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The Temporal metrics are optional and reflect the current state of the vulnerability, such as whether there is a known exploit, a patch, or a workaround. The Environmental metrics are also optional and reflect the context of the vulnerability in a specific environment, such as how it affects the asset value, security requirements, or mitigating controls. The Base metrics produce a score ranging from 0 to 10, which can then be modified by scoring the Temporal and Environmental metrics. A CVSS score is also represented as a vector string, a compressed textual representation of the values used to derive the score.
The attack vector in question has the following Base metrics:
Attack Vector (AV): Network (N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection.
Attack Complexity (AC): Low (L). This means that the attack does not require any special conditions or changes to the configuration of the target system.
Privileges Required (PR): Low (L). This means that the attacker needs some privileges on the target system to exploit the vulnerability, such as user-level access.
User Interaction (UI): None (N). This means that the attack does not require any user action or involvement to succeed.
Scope (S): Unchanged (U). This means that the impact of the vulnerability is confined to the same security authority as the vulnerable component, such as an application or an operating system.
Confidentiality Impact : High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of confidentiality, such as unauthorized disclosure of all data on the system.
Integrity Impact (I): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of integrity, such as unauthorized modification or deletion of all data on the system.
Availability Impact (A): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of availability, such as denial of service or system crash.
Using these metrics, we can calculate the Base score using this formula:
Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(Impact + Exploitability), 10])
Where:
Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - Confidentiality) x (1 - Integrity) x (1 - Availability))] Exploitability = 8.22 x Attack Vector x Attack Complexity x Privileges Required x User Interaction Using this formula, we get:
Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56))] = 5.9
Exploitability = 8.22 x 0.85 x 0.77 x 0.62 x 0.85 = 2.8
Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(5.9 + 2.8), 10]) = Roundup(8.7) = 8.8
Therefore, this attack vector has a Base score of 8.8, which is higher than any other option.
The other attack vectors have lower Base scores, as they have different values for some of the Base metrics:
CVSS:3.0/AV:P/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.2, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Physical), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having physical access to the target system.
CVSS:3.0/AV:A/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 7.4, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Adjacent Network), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by being on the same physical or logical network as the target system.
CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.8, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Local), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having local access to the target system, such as through a terminal or a command shell.
NEW QUESTION # 113
The developers recently deployed new code to three web servers. A daffy automated external device scan report shows server vulnerabilities that are failure items according to PCI DSS.
If the venerability is not valid, the analyst must take the proper steps to get the scan clean.
If the venerability is valid, the analyst must remediate the finding.
After reviewing the information provided in the network diagram, select the STEP 2 tab to complete the simulation by selecting the correct Validation Result and Remediation Action for each server listed using the drop-down options.
INTRUCTIONS:
The simulation includes 2 steps.
Step1:Review the information provided in the network diagram and then move to the STEP 2 tab.
STEP 2: Given the Scenario, determine which remediation action is required to address the vulnerability.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 114
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