CISSP Dumps To Pass ISC Certification Exam in One Day (Updated 1481 Questions)
CISSP Exam Brain Dumps - Study Notes and Theory
Certification Path of ISC CISSP Certification Exam
ISC CISSP Certification Path of ISC CISSP Certification Exam
Gain a solid foundation in information security, including a grasp of the principles and concepts used in the field. Learn the essential skills that lead to leadership positions within an organization. Gain experience as part of a team using appropriate information security processes to achieve specific business goals. Learn how to exercise leadership over those processes as well as peers and employees. Integrate enterprise risk management into company policies and procedures.
- Apply the skills learned in the CISSP Test Prep Course to develop security solutions for current and future projects.
- Improve personal skills through self-assessment, reflection, feedback, and mentoring opportunities.
- Become aware of new technologies that could improve security efforts.
- Apply the skills learned in the ISC CBK Guide to become an ISC Certified Security Professional (ISCSP).
- Become certified by demonstrating knowledge of information security concepts, principles, and practices.
NEW QUESTION 833
An organization's security policy delegates to the data owner the ability to assign which user roles have access to a particular resource. What type of authorization mechanism is being used?
- A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
- B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
- C. Media Access Control (MAC)
- D. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Identity and Access Management (IAM)
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 834
Theoretically, quantum computing offers the possibility of factoring the
products of large prime numbers and calculating discreet logarithms in
polynomial time. These calculations can be accomplished in such a
compressed time frame because:
- A. A quantum bit in a quantum computer is actually a linear superposition of both the one and zero states and, therefore, can theoretically represent both values in parallel. This phenomenon allows computation that usually takes exponential time to be accomplished in polynomial time since different values of the binary pattern of the solution can be calculated simultaneously.
- B. A quantum computer exploits the time-space relationship that changes as particles approach the speed of light. At that interface, the resistance of conducting materials effectively is zero and exponential speed computations are possible.
- C. A quantum computer takes advantage of quantum tunneling in molecular scale transistors. This mode permits ultra high-speed switching to take place, thus, exponentially increasing the speed of computations.
- D. Information can be transformed into quantum light waves that travel through fiber optic channels. Computations can be performed on the associated data by passing the light waves through various types of optical filters and solid-state materials with varying indices of refraction, thus drastically increasing the throughput over conventional computations.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In digital computers, a bit is in either a one or zero state. In a quantum computer, through linear superposition, a quantum bit can be in both states, essentially simultaneously. Thus, computations consisting of trail evaluations of binary patterns can take place simultaneously in exponential time. The probability of obtaining a correct result is increased through a phenomenon called constructive interference of light while the probability of obtaining an incorrect result is decreased through destructive interference. Answer a describes optical computing that is effective in applying Fourier and other transformations to data to perform high-speed computations. Light representing large volumes of data passing through properly shaped physical objects can be subjected to mathematical transformations and recombined to provide the appropriate results. However, this mode of computation is not defined as quantum computing. Answers c and d are diversionary answers that do not describe quantum computing.
NEW QUESTION 835
Which layer of the TCP/IP protocol model defines the IP datagram and handles the routing of data across networks?
- A. Internet layer
- B. Application layer
- C. Network access layer
- D. Host-to-host transport layer
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the TCP/IP protocol model, the Internet layer defines the IP datagram and handles the routing of data across networks. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 84). And: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 7: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 344).
NEW QUESTION 836
Which choice would be an example of a cost-effective way to enhance
security awareness in an organization?
- A. Train every employee in advanced InfoSec.
- B. Calculate the cost-benefit ratio of the asset valuations for a risk
analysis. - C. Create an award or recognition program for employees.
- D. Train only managers in implementing InfoSec controls.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 837
Elliptic curve cryptosystems:
- A. Have a lower strength per bit than an RSA.
- B. Cannot be used to implement encryption.
- C. Cannot be used to implement digital signatures.
- D. Have a higher strength per bit than an RSA.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is "Have a higher strength per bit than an RSA". It is more difficult to compute Elliptic Curve discreet logarithms than conventional discreet logarithms or factoring. Smaller key sizes in the elliptic curve implementation can yield higher levels of security. Therefore, answer "Have a lower strength per bit than an RSA" is incorrect. Answers "Cannot be used to implement digital signatures" and "Cannot be used to implement encryption" are incorrect because elliptic curve cryptosystems
can be used for digital signatures and encryption.
NEW QUESTION 838
One of the following statements about the differences between PPTP and L2TP is NOT true
- A. L2TP supports AAA servers
- B. L2TP works well with all firewalls and network devices that perform NAT.
- C. PPTP is an encryption protocol and L2TP is not.
- D. PPTP can run only on top of IP networks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
L2TP is affected by packet header modification and cannot cope with firewalls and network devices that perform NAT.
"PPTP can run only on top of IP networks." is correct as PPTP encapsulates datagrams into an IP packet, allowing PPTP to route many network protocols across an IP network.
"PPTP is an encryption protocol and L2TP is not." is correct. When using PPTP, the PPP payload is encrypted with Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE) using MSCHAP or
EAP-TLS.
"L2TP supports AAA servers" is correct as L2TP supports TACACS+ and RADIUS.
NOTE:
L2TP does work over NAT. It is possible to use a tunneled mode that wraps every packet into a UDP packet. Port 4500 is used for this purpose. However this is not true of PPTP and it is not true as well that it works well with all firewalls and NAT devices.
References:
All in One Third Edition page 545
Official Guide to the CISSP Exam page 124-126
NEW QUESTION 839
Which of the following is NOT a type of motion detector?
- A. Microwave Sensor.
- B. Photoelectric sensor
- C. Ultrasonic Sensor.
- D. Passive infrared sensors
Answer: B
Explanation:
A photoelectric sensor does not "directly" sense motion there is a narrow beam that won't set off the sensor unless the beam is broken. Photoelectric sensors, along with dry contact switches, are a type of perimeter intrusion detector.
All of the other answers are valid types of motion detectors types.
The content below on the different types of sensors is from Wikepedia:
Indoor Sensors
These types of sensors are designed for indoor use. Outdoor use would not be advised due to false alarm vulnerability and weather durability.
Passive infrared detectors
Passive Infrared Sensor
The passive infrared detector (PIR) is one of the most common detectors found in household and small business environments because it offers affordable and reliable functionality. The term passive means the detector is able to function without the need to generate and radiate its own energy (unlike ultrasonic and microwave volumetric intrusion detectors that are "active" in operation). PIRs are able to distinguish if an infrared emitting object is present by first learning the ambient temperature of the monitored space and then detecting a change in the temperature caused by the presence of an object. Using the principle of differentiation, which is a check of presence or nonpresence, PIRs verify if an intruder or object is actually there. Creating individual zones of detection where each zone comprises one or more layers can achieve differentiation. Between the zones there are areas of no sensitivity (dead zones) that are used by the sensor for comparison.
Ultrasonic detectors
Using frequencies between 15 kHz and 75 kHz, these active detectors transmit ultrasonic sound waves that are inaudible to humans. The Doppler shift principle is the underlying method of operation, in which a change in frequency is detected due to object motion. This is caused when a moving object changes the frequency of sound waves around it. Two conditions must occur to successfully detect a Doppler shift event:
There must be motion of an object either towards or away from the receiver.
The motion of the object must cause a change in the ultrasonic frequency to the receiver relative to the transmitting frequency.
The ultrasonic detector operates by the transmitter emitting an ultrasonic signal into the area to be protected. The sound waves are reflected by solid objects (such as the surrounding floor, walls and ceiling) and then detected by the receiver. Because ultrasonic waves are transmitted through air, then hard-surfaced objects tend to reflect most of the ultrasonic energy, while soft surfaces tend to absorb most energy.
When the surfaces are stationary, the frequency of the waves detected by the receiver will be equal to the transmitted frequency. However, a change in frequency will occur as a result of the Doppler principle, when a person or object is moving towards or away from the detector. Such an event initiates an alarm signal. This technology is considered obsolete by many alarm professionals, and is not actively installed.
Microwave detectors
This device emits microwaves from a transmitter and detects any reflected microwaves or reduction in beam intensity using a receiver. The transmitter and receiver are usually combined inside a single housing (monostatic) for indoor applications, and separate housings (bistatic) for outdoor applications. To reduce false alarms this type of detector is usually combined with a passive infrared detector or "Dualtec" alarm.
Microwave detectors respond to a Doppler shift in the frequency of the reflected energy, by a phase shift, or by a sudden reduction of the level of received energy. Any of these effects may indicate motion of an intruder.
Photo-electric beams
Photoelectric beam systems detect the presence of an intruder by transmitting visible or infrared light beams across an area, where these beams may be obstructed. To improve the detection surface area, the beams are often employed in stacks of two or more.
However, if an intruder is aware of the technology's presence, it can be avoided. The technology can be an effective long-range detection system, if installed in stacks of three or more where the transmitters and receivers are staggered to create a fence-like barrier.
Systems are available for both internal and external applications. To prevent a clandestine attack using a secondary light source being used to hold the detector in a 'sealed' condition whilst an intruder passes through, most systems use and detect a modulated light source.
Glass break detectors
The glass break detector may be used for internal perimeter building protection. When glass breaks it generates sound in a wide band of frequencies. These can range from infrasonic, which is below 20 hertz (Hz) and can not be heard by the human ear, through the audio band from 20 Hz to 20 kHz which humans can hear, right up to ultrasonic, which is above 20 kHz and again cannot be heard. Glass break acoustic detectors are mounted in close proximity to the glass panes and listen for sound frequencies associated with glass breaking. Seismic glass break detectors are different in that they are installed on the glass pane. When glass breaks it produces specific shock frequencies which travel through the glass and often through the window frame and the surrounding walls and ceiling. Typically, the most intense frequencies generated are between 3 and 5 kHz, depending on the type of glass and the presence of a plastic interlayer. Seismic glass break detectors "feel" these shock frequencies and in turn generate an alarm condition.
The more primitive detection method involves gluing a thin strip of conducting foil on the inside of the glass and putting low-power electrical current through it. Breaking the glass is practically guaranteed to tear the foil and break the circuit.
Smoke, heat, and carbon monoxide detectors
Heat Detection System
Most systems may also be equipped with smoke, heat, and/or carbon monoxide detectors.
These are also known as 24 hour zones (which are on at all times). Smoke detectors and heat detectors protect from the risk of fire and carbon monoxide detectors protect from the risk of carbon monoxide. Although an intruder alarm panel may also have these detectors connected, it may not meet all the local fire code requirements of a fire alarm system.
Other types of volumetric sensors could be:
Active Infrared
Passive Infrared/Microware combined
Radar
Accoustical Sensor/Audio
Vibration Sensor (seismic)
Air Turbulence
NEW QUESTION 840
With MAC, who may NOT make decisions that derive from policy?
- A. The administrator.
- B. The power users.
- C. The guests.
- D. All users except the administrator.
Answer: D
Explanation:
As the name implies, the Mandatory Access Control defines an imposed access control level. MAC is defined as follows in the Handbook of Information Security Management: With mandatory controls, only administrators and not owners of resources may make decisions that bear on or derive from policy. Only an administrator may change the category of a resource, and no one may grant a right of access that is explicitly forbidden in the access control policy.
NEW QUESTION 841
Which of the following describes the sequence of steps required for a Kerberos session to be established between a user (Principal P1), and an application server (Principal P2)?
- A. Principal P1 authenticates to the Key Distribution Center(KDC), Principal P1 receives a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT), and Principal P1 requests a service ticket from the Ticket Granting Service (TGS) in order to access the application server P2
- B. Principals P1 and Principals P2 authenticate to the Key Distribution Center (KDC),
- C. Principal P1 authenticates to the Key Distribution Center (KDC),
- D. Principals P1 and P2 authenticate to the Key Distribution Center (KDC), Principal P1 requests a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT) from the authentication server, and application server P2 requests a service ticket from P1
- E. Principal P1 requests a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT) from the authentication server, and then Principal P1 requests a service ticket from the application server P2
- F. Principal P1 receives a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT), and then Principal P2 requests a service ticket from the KDC.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Principles P1 and P2 authenticate to the Key Distribution Center (KDC), principle P1 receives a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT), and principle P2 requests a service ticket from the KDC. The principle P2 does not request a service ticket. P1 would request a service ticket. Principles P1 and P2 authenticate to the Key Distribution Center (KDC), principle P1 requests a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT) from the authentication server, and application server P2 requests a service ticket from P1 A request by P1 to access P2 will fail without a service ticket, but this is not the best answer. Principle P1 authenticates to the Key Distribution Center (KDC), principle P1 requests a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT) from the authentication server, and principle P1 requests a service ticket from the application server P2 The request for a service ticket is made to the KDC, not to P2 P2 does not proxy authentication requests for the principle P1
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Sybex CISSP Study Guide, Third Edition. pg 21
Kerberos logon process: User types in username and password, a symmetric key is derive from
the password, the user sends a Kerberos Authentication requrest to KDC, which returns a TGT
showing the user was identified.
"1) The client sends its TGT back to Ticket Granting Service (TGS) on the KDC with request for
access to a server or service"
"3) A service ticket (ST) is granted and sent to the client. The service ticket includes a session key
encrypted with the client symmetric key and also encrypted with the service or server symmetric
key"
"4) The client sends the ST to the server or service host."
NEW QUESTION 842
A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) does not:
- A. Recommend the appropriate recovery solution.
- B. Determine critical and necessary business functions and their resource dependencies.
- C. Estimate the financial impact of a disruption.
- D. Identify critical computer applications and the associated outage tolerance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Remember that when we talk about a BIA (Business Impact Analysis), we are analyzing and identifying possible issues about our infrastructure, in this kind of analysis we don't make suggestions about what to do to recover from them. This is not an action plan, It's an analysis about the business, the process that it relays on, the level of the systems and a estimative of the financial impact, or in other words, how much many we loose with our systems down.
NEW QUESTION 843
A timely review of system access audit records would be an example of which of the basic security functions?
- A. avoidance
- B. detection
- C. prevention
- D. deterrence
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 844
What is the BEST approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance?
- A. Two-factor authentication
- B. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
- C. Application of least privilege
- D. Audit logs
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 845
Which of the following is the MOST secure firewall implementation?
- A. Packet-filtering firewalls
- B. Screened-host firewalls
- C. Screened-subnet firewalls
- D. Dual-homed host firewalls
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A screened-subnet architecture is the most secure solution as it adds another layer of security to the screened-host architecture, which in turn is more secure than both Dual-homed host firewalls and Packet- filtering firewalls.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Dual-homed host firewalls are less secure compared to screened-host firewall.
C: Screened-host firewalls are less secure compared to Screened-subnet firewalls, as the screened- subnet architecture is missing.
A screened host is a firewall that communicates directly with a perimeter router and the internal network.
D: A packet-filtering firewall is part of a screened-host firewall architecture, but is less secure as the screened-host firewall is missing.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 646
NEW QUESTION 846
Which of the following are required components for implementing software configuration management systems?
- A. Rollback and recovery processes
- B. User training and acceptance
- C. Regression testing and evaluation
- D. Audit control and signoff
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 847
At which layer of ISO/OSI does the fiber optics work?
- A. Transport layer
- B. Network layer
- C. Physical layer
- D. Data link layer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The physical layer consists of the basic networking hardware transmission technologies, such as fiber optics, of a network.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The network layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through intermediate routers.
B: The transport layer provide host-to-host communication services for applications. It provides services such as connection-oriented data stream support, reliability, flow control, and multiplexing.
C: The data link layer is responsible for media access control, flow control and error checking.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 530
NEW QUESTION 848
Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION 849
Tim's day to day responsibilities include monitoring health of devices on the network. He uses a Network Monitoring System supporting SNMP to monitor the devices for any anomalies or high traffic passing through the interfaces. Which of the protocols would be BEST to use if some of the requirements are to prevent easy disclosure of the SNMP strings and authentication of the source of the packets?
- A. UDP
- B. SNMP V2
- C. SNMP V1
- D. SNMP V3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks. Devices that typically support SNMP include routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers, modem racks, and more. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention. SNMP is a component of the Internet Protocol Suite as defined by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).
SNMP V3 Although SNMPv3 makes no changes to the protocol aside from the addition of cryptographic security, it looks much different due to new textual conventions, concepts, and terminology. SNMPv3 primarily added security and remote configuration enhancements to SNMP. Security has been the biggest weakness of SNMP since the beginning. Authentication in SNMP Versions 1 and 2 amounts to nothing more than a password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and agent. Each SNMPv3 message contains security parameters which are
encoded as an octet string. The meaning of these security parameters depends on the security
model being used.
SNMPv3 provides important security features:
Confidentiality - Encryption of packets to prevent snooping by an unauthorized source.
Integrity - Message integrity to ensure that a packet has not been tampered with in transit
including an optional packet replay protection mechanism.
Authentication - to verify that the message is from a valid source.
The following answers are incorrect:
UDP
SNMP can make use of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) protocol but the UDP protocol by itself
is not use for network monitoring.
SNMP V1
SNMP version 1 (SNMPv1) is the initial implementation of the SNMP protocol. SNMPv1 operates
over protocols such as User Datagram Protocol (UDP), Internet Protocol (IP), OSI Connectionless
Network Service (CLNS), AppleTalk Datagram-Delivery Protocol (DDP), and Novell Internet
Packet Exchange (IPX). SNMPv1 is widely used and is the de facto network-management protocol
in the Internet community.
SNMP V2
SNMPv2 (RFC 1441-RFC 1452), revises version 1 and includes improvements in the areas of
performance, security, confidentiality, and manager-to-manager communications. It introduced
GetBulkRequest, an alternative to iterative GetNextRequests for retrieving large amounts of
management data in a single request. However, the new party-based security system in SNMPv2,
viewed by many as overly complex, was not widely accepted.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simple_Network_Management_Protocol
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 587). McGraw-Hill.
Kindle Edition.
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition
((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 7434-7436). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION 850
Which of the following refers to the data left on the media after the media has been erased?
- A. remanence
- B. recovery
- C. semi-hidden
- D. sticky bits
Answer: A
Explanation:
Actually the term "remanence" comes from electromagnetism, the study of the electromagnetics. Originally referred to (and still does in that field of study) the magnetic flux that remains in a magnetic circuit after an applied magnetomotive force has been removed. Absolutely no way a candidate will see anywhere near that much detail on any similar CISSP question, but having read this, a candidate won't be likely to forget it either.
It is becoming increasingly commonplace for people to buy used computer equipment, such as a hard drive, or router, and find information on the device left there by the previous owner; information they thought had been deleted. This is a classic example of data remanence: the remains of partial or even the entire data set of digital information.
Normally, this refers to the data that remain on media after they are written over or degaussed. Data remanence is most common in storage systems but can also occur in memory.
Specialized hardware devices known as degaussers can be used to erase data saved to magnetic media. The measure of the amount of energy needed to reduce the magnetic field on the media to zero is known as coercivity.
It is important to make sure that the coercivity of the degausser is of sufficient strength to meet object reuse requirements when erasing data. If a degausser is used with insufficient coercivity, then a remanence of the data will exist. Remanence is the measure of the existing magnetic field on the media; it is the residue that remains after an object is degaussed or written over.
Data is still recoverable even when the remanence is small. While data remanence exists, there is no assurance of safe object reuse.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third
Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 4207-4210). Auerbach Publications. Kindle
Edition.
and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third
Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 19694-19699). Auerbach Publications. Kindle
Edition.
NEW QUESTION 851
Which of the following needs to be tested to achieve a Cat 6a certification for a company's data cabling?
- A. RJ11
- B. LC ports
- C. F-type connector
- D. Patch panel
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 852
Which of the following items is NOT primarily used to ensure integrity?
- A. Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID) system
- B. Hashing Algorithms
- C. Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)
- D. The Biba Security model
Answer: A
Explanation:
RAID systems are mostly concerned with availability and performance.
All of the following were all concerned with integrity, only RAID was NOT mostly concerned with Integrity:
Cyclic Redundancy Check: A cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a type of function that takes as input a data stream of unlimited length and produces as output a value of a certain fixed size. The term CRC is often used to denote either the function or the function's output. A CRC can be used in the same way as a checksum to detect accidental alteration of data during transmission or storage. CRCs are popular because they are simple to implement in binary hardware, are easy to analyze mathematically, and are particularly good at detecting common errors caused by noise in transmission channels.
Hashing Algorithms: In cryptography, a cryptographic hash function is a hash function with certain additional security properties to make it suitable for use as a primitive in various information security applications, such as authentication and message integrity. A hash function takes a long string (or 'message') of any length as input and produces a fixed length string as output, sometimes termed a message digest or a digital fingerprint.
Enlarge
Above you see a hash function at work
In various standards and applications, the two most-commonly used hash functions are
MD5 and SHA-1. In 2005, security flaws were identified in both algorithms. Many security professionals have started making use of SHA-256 and SHA-512 which are stronger hashing algorithms.
The Biba Security Model:
The Biba Integrity Model was developed to circumvent a weakness in the Bell-LaPadula computer operating system protection model which did not include the possibility of implicit deletion of security objects by writing to them.
In general, preservation of integrity has three goals:
Prevent data modification by unauthorized parties
Prevent unauthorized data modification by authorized parties
Maintain internal and external consistency (i.e. data reflects the real world)
The Biba model address only the first goal of integrity. The Clark-Wilson model address all
3 goals listed above.
References:
http://www.answers.com/topic/biba-integrity-model
http://www.answers.com/message+digest?cat=technology
http://www.answers.com/topic/hashing?cat=technology
NEW QUESTION 853
Which of the following best ensures accountability of users for the actions taken within a system or domain?
- A. Authorization
- B. Identification
- C. Authentication
- D. Credentials
Answer: C
Explanation:
The only way to ensure accountability is if the subject is uniquely identified and
authenticated. Identification alone does not provide proof the user is who they claim to be. After
showing proper credentials, a user is authorized access to resources.
References:
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter
4: Access Control (page 126).
NEW QUESTION 854
Which of the following RAID levels is not used in practice and was quickly superseded by the more flexible levels?
- A. RAID Level 0
- B. RAID Level 2
- C. RAID Level 1
- D. RAID Level 7
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RAID Level 2 consists of bit-interleaved data on multiple disks. The parity information is created using a hamming code that detects errors and establishes which part of which drive is in error. It defines a disk drive system with 39 disks: 32 disks of user storage 66 and seven disks of error recovery coding. This level is not used in practice and was quickly superseded by the more flexible levels.
Incorrect Answers:
A: RAID Level 0 "Writes files in stripes across multiple disks without the use of parity information. This technique allows for fast reading and writing to disk. However, without the parity information, it is not possible to recover from a hard drive failure. This technique does not provide redundancy and should not be used for systems with high availability requirements. RAID Level 0 is widely used today where performance is required but not redundancy.
B: RAID Level 1 "This level duplicates all disk writes from one disk to another to create two identical drives.
This technique is also known as data mirroring. RAID Level 1 is widely used today.
D: RAID Level 7 is a variation of RAID 5 wherein the array functions as a single virtual disk in the hardware. This is sometimes simulated by software running over a RAID level 5 hardware implementation.
This enables the drive array to continue to operate if any disk or any path to any disk fails. RAID Level 7 was not superseded by the more flexible levels.
References:
Krutz, Ronald L. and Russel Dean Vines, The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, New York, 2003, p. 90
NEW QUESTION 855
What is the BEST answer pertaining to the difference between the Session and Transport layers of the OSI model?
- A. The Session layer sets up communication between computer systems, while the Transport layer sets up connections between protocols.
- B. The Session layer sets up communication between protocols, while the Transport layer sets up connections between computer systems.
- C. The Transport layer sets up communication between computer systems, while the Session layer sets up connections between applications.
- D. The Transport layer sets up communication between applications, while the Session layer sets up connections between computer systems.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The transport layer provides host-to-host (for example, computer-to-computer) communication services.
The session layer provides the mechanism for opening, closing and managing a session between end- user application processes.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The session layer sets up communication between applications, not between protocols.
C: The session layer sets up communication between applications, not between computer systems.
The transport layer provides host-to-host communication services, not protocol-to-protocol services.
D: The session layers sets up communication between applications, while the Transport layer sets up connections between computer systems. Not vice versa.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 522
NEW QUESTION 856
The act of requiring two of the three factors to be used in the authentication process refers to?
- A. Bi-Factor Authentication
- B. One-Factor Authentication
- C. Two-Factor Authentication
- D. Double Authentication
Answer: C
Explanation:
Two-Factor Authentication is a security process that confirms user identities using two distinctive factors-something you know, such as a Personal
Identification Number (PIN), and something you have, such as a smart card or token.
The overall strength of Two-Factor Authentication lies in the combination of both factors, something you know and something you have.
NEW QUESTION 857
......
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